Veterinary Anatomy Questions & Answers (DOGS & CATS)

100 Questions, 1 Mark pr Question,  Total Score after Question 100.
Author: Joe Smith Veterinary Anatomy University College Dublin
Q1. A complete fracture of a tuber calcanei (with separation of the tuber from the remainder of the calcaneus ) would most greatly impair an animal's ability to: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  flex the digits
(b)  flex the hock
(c)  extend the digits
(d)  extend the hock
(e)  extend the stifle

 
 

Q2. On observing in a standing dog that the vertebral border of the right scapula projects dorsally above the tips of the spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae, you might most correctly suspect a:

 

 
 
 
 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  rupture of the subscapular muscle
(b)  fracture of the neck of the scapula
(c)  paralysis of the trapezium muscle
(d)  rupture of the serratus ventralis muscle
(e)  paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle

 
 

Q3. The primary combined action of the internal obturator, external obturator, and gemellus muscles is to: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  flex the hip
(b)  extend the hip
(c)  abduct the pelvic limb
(d)  adduct the pelvic limb
(e)  rotate the pelvic limb

 
 

Q4. The primary action of the triceps brachii muscle is to: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  flex the shoulder
(b)  extend the shoulder
(c)  flex the elbow
(d)  extend the elbow
(e)  abduct the thoracic limb

 
 

Q5. Tne paired muscle that opens the jaw is the:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  buccinator
(b)  masseter
(c)  digastricus
(d)  temporalis
(e)  medial pterygoid

 
 

Q6. A pin placed in the calcaneus to stabilize the tuber calcanei would most likely pass through tendons of the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  gastrocnemius and superficial digital flexor
(b)  gastrocnemius and deep digital flexor
(c)  superficial and deep digital flexor
(d)  anconeus and popliteus
(e)  cranial tibial and fibularis longus

 
 

Q7. Transecting the patellae ligament, parapatellar retinacula, and fascia lata of the right pelvic limb would most likely result in: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  overextension of the right stifle joint
(b)  hyperflexion of the hip joint
(c)  cranial drawer movement of the stifle joint
(d)  caudal drawer movement of the stifle joint'
(e)  increased tension on the long digital extensor tendon

 
 

Q8. To inject a drug into the stifle joint of a dog so that the injected solution would enter the synovial space between patella and femur, femur and tibia, and tibia and proximal fibula (without having to diffuse,- through synovial membranes), what is the minimum number of injections that could be given? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  1
(b)  2
(c)  3
(d)  5
(e)  5

 
 

Q9. The muscle that most completely covers the distolateral surface of the femur is the 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  gastrocnemius
(b)  vastus lateralis
(c)  biceps femoris
(d)  tensor fasciae latae
(e)  adductor

 
 

Q10. The cranial preputial muscle is a partially isolated portion of the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  external abdominal oblique
(b)  internal abdominal oblique
(c)  transversus abdominis
(d)  rectus abdominis
(e)  cutaneus trunci

 
 

Q11. Most growth in height of a young dog occurs in the distal portion of the humerus and femur This growth occurs in the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  physes
(b)  metaphyses
(c)  diaphyses
(d)  articular cartilages
(e)  primary ossification centers

 
 

Q12. The ligamentum nuchae.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  assists in flexion of the cervical vertebrae
(b)  is not found in cats
(c)  attaches to the nuchal crest of the skull of dogs
(d)  arises from the last five cervical and first thoracic vertebrae in carnivores
(e)  is in contact with all cervical vertebrae in dogs

 
 

Q13. The muscle most closely in contact with the ventral surface of cervical vertebrae and intervertebral disks is the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  sternohyoideus
(b)  sternothyroideus
(c)  sternocephalicus
(d)  longus colli
(e)  longus capitis

 
 

Q14. The cervical vertebra with large ventrolaterally projecting transverse processes, each subdivided into two projections, is the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  first cervical vertebra
(b)  second cervical vertebra
(c)  third cervical vertebra
(d)  sixth cervical vertebra
(e)  seventh cervical vertebra

 
 

Q15. Concerning the stifle joint, which statement is least accurate? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  The medial meniscus and medial collateral ligament are in contact with each other
(b)  The tibial attachment of the cranial cruciate ligament is cranial to that of the caudal cruciate ligament.
(c)  The patella is attached to right and left fabellae by connective tissue.
(d)  The popliteal tendon of origin crosses the deep surface of the lateral collateral ligament.
(e)  The tendon of origin of the deep digital flexor is attached to the distal end of the femur.

 
 

Q16. The portion of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone is the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  retroarticular process
(b)  coronoid process
(c)  angle
(d)  condylar process
(e)  zygomatic process

 
 

Q17. From a lateral approach, separation of which two muscles would expose the lateral surface of the femoral bone? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  triceps surae and semitendinosus
(b)  semitendinosus and biceps femoris
(c)  biceps femoris and vastus lateralis
(d)  vastus lateralis and sartorius
(e)  semimembranosus and adductor

 
 

Q18. When removing the entire distal phalanx of each digit during declawing of cats, you sever the tendons of insertion of the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  gastrocnemius and deep digital flexor muscles
(b)  superficial and deep digital flexor muscles
(c)  cranial tibial and long digital extensor muscles
(d)  deep digital flexor and long digital extensor muscles
(e)  superficial digital flexor and long digital extensor muscles

 
 

Q19. Which condition would most likely result in "sinking" of the right carpal pad toward the floor surface when the limb supports weight? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  detached lateral epicondyle of the humerus
(b)  torn common digital extensor tendons
(c)  stretched biceps brachii tendon
(d)  separated transverse humeral ligament
(e)  fractured accessory carpal bone

 
 

Q20. Which muscle of dogs does not normally have a sesamoid bone associated with its tendon? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  popliteus
(b)  long abductor of the first digit
(c)  superficial digital flexor
(d)  cranial tibial
(e)  gastrocnemius

 
 

Q21. A needle passed into the shoulder joint from a lateral approach would most likely pass through the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  subscapularis muscle
(b)  lateral head of the triceps brachii muscle
(c)  deltoideus muscle
(d)  omotransversarius muscle
(e)  brachialis muscle

 
 

Q22. Concerning the anatomic structure and function of the limbs, which statement is least accurate? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  The deep digital flexor muscle in the pelvic limb is also an extensor of the tarsus.
(b)  The superficial digital flexor muscle in the thoracic limb is also a flexor of the carpus.
(c)  The long digital extensor muscle also provides some stability to the stifle joint.
(d)  The triceps brachii muscle also flexes the shoulder joint.
(e)  The gastrocnemius muscle also flexes the digit

 
 

Q23. The tendon of the infraspinatus muscle may be best revealed by detaching and retracting the tendon of insertion of which muscle? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  supraspinatus
(b)  subscapularis
(c)  teres minor
(d)  triceps brachii
(e)  deltoideus

 
 

Q24. To most completely reveal the dorsal aspect of the hipjoint, which muscle must be detached and its tendon of insertion retracted?

 

 
 
 
 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  tensor fasciae latae
(b)  internal obturator
(c)  external obturator
(d)  biceps femoris
(e)  deep gluteal

 
 

Q25. If the common calcaneal tendon of an animal is ton (separated), the animal loses most of its ability to; 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  extend the stifle
(b)  extend the hip
(c)  extend the hock
(d)  flex the hock
(e)  flex the digits

 
 

Q26. Removing the anconeus muscle would most expose the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  tendon of the biceps brachii muscle
(b)  medial collateral ligament of the elbow
(c)  lateral collateral ligament of the elbow
(d)  caudolateral aspect of the elbow
(e)  supinator muscle

 
 

Q27. Movement of the proximal portion of the tibia caudally, relative to the femur, is an indication of a torn: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  long digital extensor
(b)  popliteus
(c)  cranial cruciate ligament
(d)  caudal cruciate ligament
(e)  collateral ligament

 
 

Q28. If the distal physis of the ulna is destroyed in a 6- month-old dog 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  the antebrachium of the limb would cease to lengthen
(b)  the distal end of the limb (manus) would deviate medially
(c)  the distal end of the limb (manus) would deviate laterally
(d)  the limb would continue to lengthen at the same rate as the unaffected limb
(e)  lengthening of the antebrachium would be unaffected, because the limb is mature by this age

 
 

Q29. In the midcervical region, lateral reflection of the left stemohyoideus muscle would most reveal the adjacent but deeper 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  trachea
(b)  esophagus
(c)  left common carotid artery
(d)  left stemocephahcus muscle
(e)  left sternothyroideus muscle

 
 

Q30. Double dewclaws are a desirable trait in which dog breed? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  German shepherd
(b)  boston terrier
(c)  collie
(d)  briard
(e)  golden retriever

 
 

Q31. The ligamentum nuchae

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  assists in extension of the cervical vertebrae
(b)  is present in cats
(c)  attaches to the nuchal crest of the skull in dogs
(d)  arises, in dogs and cats, from the last five cervical and first thoracic vertebrae
(e)  is in contact, in dogs and cats, with all cervical vertebrae 

 
 

Q32. Which bone or portion of bone in the thoracic limb is least stressed by the weight of the animal during the support phase of locomotion? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  ulna
(b)  lateral humeral epicondyle
(c)  radius
(d)  radial carpal bone
(e)  humeral diaphysis

 
 

Q33. An intervertebral disk is least likely to rupture.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  dorsally
(b)  between vertebrae in the eleventh thoracic to fourth lumbar area
(c)  where it contacts an intercapital ligament
(d)  into the vertebral canal
(e)  at vertebral levels with adjacent longus colli muscles

 
 

Q34. Section through the vertebral arch and removal of the lamina of the most cranial lumbar vertebra requires detachment and retraction of the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  multifidus
(b)  iliocostalis
(c)  longissimus
(d)  rhomboideus
(e)  serratus dorsalis

 
 

Q35. Which joint has the least developed collateral ligaments? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  shoulder
(b)  elbow
(c)  antebrachiocarpal joint
(d)  stifle
(e)  proximal interphalangeal joint

 
 

Q36. Tearing and separation of the tendon of insertion of which muscle would most seriously impair an animal's ability to stand on the affected limb? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  biceps brachii
(b)  common digital extensor
(c)  deep digital flexor
(d)  gastrocnemius
(e)  quadriceps femoris

 
 

Q37. The patella normally is:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  within the tendon of the gastrocnemius muscle
(b)  within the tendon of the cranial tibial muscle
(c)  attached to the medial meniscus
(d)  attached to the lateral meniscus
(e)  positioned proximal to the femorotibial joint space

 
 

Q38. A standing dog that lifts its left foreleg to lick the metacarpal pad would least likely have near- maximal contraction of its: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  right triceps brachii
(b)  left pronator teres
(c)  left deep digital flexor
(d)  left biceps brachii
(e)  left supinator

 
 

Q39. Reflection of the tensor fasciae latae and sartorius cranially, middle and deep gluteus dorsally, and vastus lateralis distocaudally would reveal the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  long adductor muscle
(b)  cranial surface of the hip joint capsule
(c)  pectineus muscle
(d)  femoral triangle
(e)  internal obturator muscle

 
 

Q40. deep laceration directed dorsoventrally across the zygomatic and masseteric regions of the head would most likely damage the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  nasolacrimal duct
(b)  parotid salivary duct
(c)  mandibular salivary duct
(d)  monostomatic sublingual salivary duct
(e)  zygomatic salivary duct

 
 

Q41. The duodenocolic fold connects mesentery of which structures? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  ascending duodenum and ascending colon
(b)  ascending duodenum and descending colon
(c)  descending duodenum and ascending colon
(d)  descending duodenum and descending colon
(e)  caudal duodenal flexure and transverse colon

 
 

Q42. An incision through the skin and superficial fascia over the ventral portion of the eleventh intercostal space would first reveal which subcutaneous skeletal muscle? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  thoracic diaphragm
(b)  . latissimus dorsi
(c)  quadratus lumborum
(d)  external abdominal oblique
(e)  external intercostal

 
 

Q43. Which structures are not normally adjacent to each other? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  caudate process of the caudate liver lobe and right kidney
(b)  papillary process of the caudate liver lobe and lesser curvature of the stomach
(c)  prostate gland and urethra
(d)  left lobe of the pancreas and caudal duodenal flexure
(e)  caudal margin of the greater omentum and dorsal surface of the urinary bladder

 
 

Q44. Which structure is normally located in the right half of a dogs body 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  descending duodenum
(b)  descending colon
(c)  spleen
(d)  gastric fundus
(e)  midcervical portion of the esophagus

 
 

Q45. In a normal dog or cat, an incision through the ventral abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity, between the umbilicus and urinary bladder would first reveal the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  jejunum
(b)  descending colon
(c)  ureter
(d)  greater omentum
(e)  transverse colon

 
 

Q46. A segment of bowel with blood vessels coursing along both its mesenteric and antimesenteric borders is the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  ascending duodenum
(b)  terminal portion of the ileum
(c)  transverse colon
(d)  descending colon
(e)  rectum

 
 

Q47. As the stomach distends and changes position in the abdominal cavity, the organ that consequently moves caudally due to a common mesenteric attachment with the stomach is the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  duodenum
(b)  right kidney
(c)  right lobe of the pancreas
(d)  liver
(e)  spleen

 
 

Q48. An abnormal mass within the base of the lingual frenulum would most likely interfere with discharge of secretions from the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  mandibular salivary gland
(b)  zygomatic salivary gland
(c)  parotid salivary gland
(d)  vomeronasal gland
(e)  lacrimal gland

 
 

Q49. A dog swallows a sharp bone. If the bone subsequently penetrated through the parietal portion of the stomach, it would also most likely. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  enter the omental bursa
(b)  puncture the gallbladder
(c)  pierce the left ventricle of the heart
(d)  pierce the liver
(e)  tear through the greater omentum

 
 

Q50. A visceral serous membrane is not present on the surface of the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  right accessory lobe of the lung
(b)  liver
(c)  stomach
(d)  spleen
(e)  cervical esophagus

 
 

Q51. If a hernia of the thoracic diaphragm develops so slowly that no serous membranes rupture while the gastric fundus moves into the thoracic cavity, how many layers of serous membrane would be present between the pleural cavity and the smooth muscle of the stomach? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  5
(b)  4
(c)  3
(d)  2
(e)  1

 
 

Q52. In a dog that has not eaten recently, which structure is situated caudal to the root of the mesentery? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  cecum
(b)  transverse colon
(c)  body of the pancreas
(d)  spleen
(e)  right kidney

 
 

Q53. The tracheal carina is positioned:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  dorsal to the esophagus
(b)  between the base of the heart and the esophagus
(c)  caudal to the base of the heart
(d)  to the left of the pulmonary trunk
(e)  to the left of-the ascending aorta

 
 

Q54. Not including the tiny interarytenoid cartilage, the larynx of dogs and cats consists of 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  two paired and three unpaired cartilages
(b)  one paired and two unpaired cartilages
(c)  three unpaired cartilages
(d)  one paired and three unpaired cartilages
(e)  four unpaired cartilages

 
 

Q55. When the lungs are fully inflated, their caudolateral margins extend caudally to about the transverse level of the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  sixth thoracic vertebra
(b)  eighth thoracic vertebra
(c)  tenth thoracic vertebra
(d)  twelfth thoracic vertebra
(e)  second lumbar vertebra

 
 

Q56. The accessory lobe of the right lung is curled around the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  esophagus
(b)  aorta
(c)  caudal vena cava
(d)  trachea
(e)  right azygos vein

 
 

Q57. The cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle functions in:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  constricting the pharynx
(b)  constricting the esophagus
(c)  tightening the cricothyroid ligament
(d)  closing the rima glottides
(e)  opening the rima glottides

 
 

Q58. A tear or rip in a dog's thoracic diaphragm between the diaphragmatic openings of the esophagus and caudal vena cava, would most likely permit. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  lung tissue to collapse
(b)  lung tissue to enter the abdominal cavity
(c)  abdominal viscera to enter the pericardial cavity
(d)  liver lobes to enter the right pleural cavity
(e)  liver lobes to enter the left pleural cavity

 
 

Q59. A dog is brought to your clinic with a puncture wound in the left thoracic wall, and you diagnose a collapsed lung. What is the least number of serous membranes (layers) that could have been punctured? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  none
(b)  1
(c)  2
(d)  3
(e)  4

 
 

Q60. In a resting dog that is not panting or swallowing, the apex or tip of the epiglottis is normally positioned in the: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  laryngopharynx
(b)  oropharynx
(c)  intrapharyngeal ostium
(d)  piriform recess
(e)  laryngeal vestibule

 
 

Q61. Which cartilage of the larynx is most responsible for preventing collapse or constriction of the laryngeal airway? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  cricoid
(b)  arytenoid
(c)  thyroid
(d)  epiglottis
(e)  interarytenoid

 
 

Q62. Fracture of the right fifth rib, with severe damage to lung tissue directly deep to that rib, would most likely result in: 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  puncture and collapse of only the right lobe
(b)  puncture and collapse of only the right lobe
(c)  puncture of the right middle lobe and collapse of the right lung
(d)  puncture and collapse of only the right caudal lobe
(e)  puncture of the right caudal lobe and collapse of the right lung

 
 

Q63. The urinary bladder is supported by.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  one ligament or mesentery
(b)  two ligaments or mesenteries
(c)  three ligaments or mesenteries
(d)  four ligaments or mesenteries
(e)  five ligaments or mesenteries

 
 

Q64. Concerning the urethra of dogs and cats, which statement is most accurate? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  The preprostatic portion of the feline urethra is relatively longer than that of the dog.
(b)  The urethralis muscle is composed of smooth (nonstriated) muscle.
(c)  The urethralis muscle is not present in cats.
(d)  The pelvic portion of the male urethra is contained within connective tissue caudal to the most caudal extent of the peritoneal cavity.
(e)  The ductus deferens enters the postprostatic portion of the male urethra

 
 

Q65. Concerning the genital anatomy of male dogs and cats, which statement is least accurate? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  Within the scrotum, the ductus deferens is medial to the epididymis.
(b)  The ductus deferens arises from the epididymis at the cranial margin of the testis.
(c)  The cremaster muscle is external to the parietal vaginal tunic.
(d)  The spermatic cord is synonymous with the visceral layer of the vaginal tunic and its contents.
(e)  During development, the testis descends into the scrotum through the inguinal canal while remaining outside the vaginal canal.

 
 

Q66. The vagina is positioned.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  directly dorsal to the rectum
(b)  directly ventral to the urethra
(c)  within the pubovesicular excavation
(d)  within the rectogenital excavation
(e)  ventral to the perineal body

 
 

Q67. A loop of intestine passes through (within) the vaginal canal, reaching the level of the testis and without tearing of any serosal layer What is the minimum number of serous layers between the smooth muscle of the intestinal wall and the lumen of the ductus deferens? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  none
(b)  1
(c)  2
(d)  3
(e)  4

 
 

Q68. Which of the following is a direct indication of long-standing pulmonary hypertension (constricted pulmonary vessels)? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  enlarged right atrium
(b)  enlarged left atrium
(c)  dilated aortic bulb
(d)  tracheal collapse
(e)  left ventricular hypertrophy

 
 

Q69. Sharp, bony fragments in afractured temporomandibular joint would most likely damage the adjacent. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  internal carotid artery
(b)  lingual artery
(c)  external ophthalmic artery
(d)  caudal auricular artery
(e)  maxillary artery

 
 

Q70. In adult animals, remnants of the fetal arterial blood supply from the placenta provide blood to the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  liver
(b)  duodenum
(c)  jejunoileum
(d)  linea alba
(e)  urinary bladder

 
 

Q71. Incomplete occlusion of the cephalic vein during venipuncture allows venous blood to continue flowing from the cranial surface of the antebrachium toward the heart through the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  axillobrachial vein
(b)  omobrachial vein
(c)  median vein
(d)  median cubital vein
(e)  accessory cephalic vein

 
 

Q72. Concerning the vascular system in dogs and cats, which statement is least accurate? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  two left renal arteries often supply the left kidney.
(b)  the cranial margin of the left kidney in dogs is caudal to that of the right.
(c)  The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.
(d)  The right renal vein drains into the portal vein.
(e)  The origin of the right artery from the dorsal aorta is cranial to that of the right testicular artery.

 
 

Q73. In normal animals, which vein never drains directly into the right atrium?

 

 
 
 
 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  right pulmonary vein
(b)  cranial vena cava
(c)  caudal vena cava
(d)  great cardiac vein
(e)  right azygos vein

 
 

Q74. If the celiac artery is severed, which organ would be least deprived of arterial blood? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  stomach
(b)  gallbladder
(c)  spleen
(d)  liver
(e)  pancreas

 
 

Q75. The coronary arteries are branches of the.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  pulmonary trunk
(b)  aorta
(c)  right atrium
(d)  left atrium
(e)  brachiocephalic trunk

 
 

Q76. In cats, which artery passes through an osseous foramen? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  brachial artery
(b)  median artery
(c)  common interosseous artery
(d)  femoral artery
(e)  cranial tibial artery

 
 

Q77. In an angiographic study, contrast medium injected into the cranial mesenteric artery would least likely appear in the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  duodenum
(b)  jejunum
(c)  ileum
(d)  cecum
(e)  spleen

 
 

Q78. If larger than the diameter of a large capillary, intravascular debris breaking away from a blood clot in the femoral vein would be most likely trapped first in the vascular bed of the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  liver
(b)  lung
(c)  brain
(d)  spleen
(e)  kidneys

 
 

Q79. If you wished to place a long cannula into the pulmonary trunk without surgically entering the pleural or peritoneal cavities, the most appropriate vascular approach would be via the.

 

 
 
 
 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  left femoral artery
(b)  left femoral vein
(c)  left common carotid artery
(d)  left brachial artery
(e)  right azygos vein

 
 

Q80. If a medial iliac lymph node is greatly enlarged but the caudal mesenteric, superficial inguinal, and poplitea1 lymph nodes are of normal size, you would most likely observe an infection in the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  tail
(b)  descending colon
(c)  cranial rectum
(d)  prepuce
(e)  metatarsal pad

 
 

Q81. Which pair of structures is least closely associated in proximity? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  tibial nerve and popliteal lymph node
(b)  axillary nerve and proper axillary lymph node
(c)  internal thoracic artery and sternal lymph node
(d)  right azygos vein and right tracheobronchial lymph node
(e)  mandibular nerve and mandibular lymph node

 
 

Q82. A dog has a malignant growth on its prepuce. On cytologic examination, you detect malignant cells in the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. Which lymph nodes should you next examine to see if the neoplasm has spread along a lymphatic drainage route? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  axillary proper
(b)  accessory axillary
(c)  popliteal
(d)  medial iliac
(e)  jejunal

 
 

Q83. The thoracic duct.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  drains into the cisterna chyli
(b)  drains lymph from the pelvic limbs, tail, and intestines
(c)  drains the pulmonary and tracheobronchial lymph node
(d)  crosses the lateral surface of the pericardium
(e)  enters the right azygos vein

 
 

Q84. Concerning the cisterna chyli, which statement is least accurate? 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  The thoracic duct drains the cisterna chyli
(b)  Both the intestinal and lumbar lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli.
(c)  The cisterna chyli is situated between the crura of the thoracic diaphragm.
(d)  The vessels draining the cisterna chyli pass through the esophageal hiatus of the thoracic diaphragm.
(e)  The cisterna chyli is a thin-walled structure that is not easily observed grossly.

 
 

Q85. A dog with enlarged superficial inguinal and axillary lymph nodes and normal superficial cervical and popliteal lymph nodes would most likely have an infection in its:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  thoracic limb
(b)  pelvic limb
(c)  thoracic and pelvic limbs
(d) thoracic and pelvic organs
(e)  mammary glands

 
 

Q86. Which structure is not contained within the mediastinum?

 

 
 
 
 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  thymus
(b)  thoracic portion of the esophagus
(c)  thoracic portion of the trachea
(d)  heart
(e)  thoracic portion of the caudal vena cava

 
 

Q87. A needle inserted rostromedial to the temporomandibular joint would most likely penetrate the.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  medial pterygoid muscle
(b)  digastricus muscle
(c)  masseter muscle
(d)  temporalis muscle
(e)  geniohyoideus muscle

 
 

Q88. Which structure is found in both cats and dogs?

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  soleus muscles
(b)  sacrotuberous ligaments
(c)  anconeus muscles
(d)  nuchal ligament
(e)  supracondylar foramina

 
 

Q89. Concerning positional relationship, which statement is at accurate?

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  The esophagus is dorsal to the tracheal carina
(b)  In the midcervical region, the esophagus is dorsolateral to the trachea and on the left.
(c)  The trachealis muscle is located within the dorsal portion of the trachea.
(d)  The pylorus of the stomach and cranial portion of the duodenum are located toward the left side of the abdominal cavity.
(e)  The prostate gland is ventral to the rectum.

 
 

Q90. Dorsocranial placement of the proximal femur indicates that.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  the femoral nerve is damaged
(b)  the obturator nerve is damaged
(c)  the tuber ischiadicum is fractured
(d)  an intracapsular ligament is ruptured
(e)  the sacrotuberous ligament is torn

 
 

Q91. The lacrimal gland

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  is ventral to the eyeball
(b)  is lateral to the eyeball
(c)  secretes fluid that enters the conjunctival sac through the caudal surface of the third eyelid
(d)  secretes fluid that enters the anterior chamber of the eye
(e)  secretes fluid that drains from the orbital region into the nasal vestibule

 
 

Q92. Enlarging the cartilaginous external auditory meatus by cutting ventrally through the pretragic incisure would most likely damage the.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  scutiform cartilage
(b)  accessory nerve
(c)  facial vein
(d)  parotid salivary gland
(e)  mandibular salivary gland

 
 

Q93. A thistle in the medial aspect of the third digit, on the surface facing the second digit, is in the

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  axial surface of the first interdigital space
(b)  abaxial surface of the first interdigital space
(c)  axial surface of the second interdigital space
(d)  abaxial surface of the second interdigital space
(e)  axial surface of the third interdigital space

 
 

Q94. In a dog with a severed common calcaneal tendon, an adjacent structure that should be examined for damage is the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  saphenous nerve
(b)  common fibular nerve
(c)  tibial nerve
(d)  cranial tibial artery
(e)  fibula

 
 

Q95. A fracture through the distomedial portion of a cat's humerus would most likely involve direct injury to the:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  cephalic vein
(b)  radial nerve
(c)  median nerve
(d)  ulnar nerve
(e)  head of the radius

 
 

Q96. If a bone tumor spreads from the vertebral column via a venous pathway, neoplastic cells are at likely to be carried by the.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  vertebral veins
(b)  costocervical vein
(c)  right azygos vein
(d)  subclavian vein
(e)  caudal vena cava

 
 

Q97. Concerning positional relationships, which statement is least accurate?

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  . Part of the thoracic diaphragm is dorsocaudal to the right kidney.
(b)  The caudal extent of the lung is caudolateral to much of the liver.
(c)  Lung tissue extends craniomedially, cranial to the first ribs.
(d)  The right kidney of dogs is cranial to the left kidney.
(e)  The left lung occupies more space in the thoracic cavity than does the right lung.

 
 

Q98. A transverse incision through the skin of the plantar surface of the calcaneus, distal to the insertion of the common calcaneal tendon, would most likely damage the. 

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  gastrocnemius tendon
(b)  deep digital flexor tendon
(c)  superficial digital flexor tendon
(d)  cranial tibial artery
(e)  superficial fibular nerve

 
 

Q99. Caudal to the anticlinal vertebra of carnivores:

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  no costotransverse saiculations are present
(b)  multifidus muscles are absent
(c)  accessory processes of the vertebrae are absent
(d)  intervertebral articular surfaces are oriented in the sagittal plane
(e)  the ventral longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column is absent

 
 

Q100. In an adult dog or cat, the thymus is located in the.

 

 
 
 

(Select one answer)

(a)  cervical region
(b)  pleural cavity
(c)  cranial mediastinum
(d)  fibrous pericardium
(e)  pericardial cavity

 
 

Click to view your total score for all the above questions that you have attempted.

 

 
 
 



Author: Joe Smith Veterinary Anatomy University College Dublin		 Last modified: 27 Mar 2000 11:51
Authored in CALnet