Q1. A complete fracture of a tuber calcaneus (with separation of the tuber from the remainder of the calcaneus) would most greatly impair an animal's ability to:

a. flex the digits

b. flex the hock

c. extend the digits

d. extend the hock

e. extend the stifle


Q2. Upon observing in a standing dog that the vertebral border of the right scapula projects dorsally above the tips of the spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae, you might most correctly suspect a..

a. rupture of the subscapular muscle

b. fracture of the neck of the scapula

c. paralysis of the trapezium muscle

d. rupture of the serratus ventralis muscle

e. paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle ,


Q3. The primary combined action of the internal obturator, external obturator and gemellus muscles is to:

a. flex the hip

b. extend the hip

c. abduct the pelvic limb

d. adduct the pelvic limb

e. rotate the pelvic limb


Q4. The primary action of the triceps brachii is to:

a. flex the shoulder

b. extend the shoulder

c. flex the elbow

d. extend the elbow

e. abduct the thoracic limb


Q5. The paired muscle that opens the jaw is the..

a. buccinator

b. masseter

c. digastricus

d. temporalis.

e. medial pterygoid


Q6. A pin placed in the calcaneus to stabilize the tuber calcanei would most likely pass through tendons of the..

a. gastrocnemius and superficial digital flexor

b. gastrocnemius and deep digital flexor

c. superficial and deep digital flexors

d. anconeus and popliteus

e. cranial tibial and fibularis longus


Q7. Transecting the patellar ligament, parapatellar retinacula, and fascia lata of the right pelvic limb would most likely result in:

a. overextension of the right stifle joint

b. hyperflexion of the hip joint

c. cranial drawer movement of the stifle joint

d . caudal drawer movement of the stifle joint

e. increased tension on the long digital extensor tendon


Q8. To inject a drug into the stifle joint of a dog, such that the injected solution would enter the synovial space between patella and femur, femur and tibial and tibia and proximal fibula (without having to diffuse through synovial membranes), what is the minimum number of injections that could be given?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

e. 5


Q9. The muscle that most completely covers the distolateral surface of the femur is the..

a. gastrocnemius

b. vastus lateralis

c. biceps femoris

d. tensor fasciae latae

e. adductor


Q10. The cranial preputial muscle is a partially isolated portion of the..

a. external abdominal oblique

b. internal abdominal oblique

c. transversus abdominis

d. rectus abdominis

e. cutaneus trunci


Q11. Most growth in height of a young dog occur,, in the distal portion of the humerus and femur. This growth occurs in the..

a. physes

b. metaphyses

c. diaphyses

d. articular cartilages

e. primary ossification centers


Q12. Accommodation for near and far vision is accomplished by contraction or relaxation of muscles in the..

a. ciliary body

b. conjunctiva

c. ins

d. limbus

e. retina

Q13. The muscle most closely in contact with the ventral surface of cervical vertebrae and intervertebral disks is the..

a. sternohyoideus

b. sternothyroideus

c. sternocephalicus

Q14. The cervical vertebra with large ventrolatemlly projecting transverse processes, each subdivided into 2 projections, is the..

a. first cervical vertebra

b. second cervical vertebra

c. third cervical vertebra

d. sixth cervical vertebra

e. seventh cervical vertebra


Q15. Concerning the stifle joint, which statement is least accurate?

a. The medial meniscus and medial collateral ligament are in contact with each other.

b. The tibial attachment of the cranial cruciate ligament is cranial to that of the caudal cruciate ligament.

c. The patella is attached to right and left fabellae by connective tissue.

d. The popliteal tendon of origin crosses the deep surface of the lateral collateral ligament.

e. The tendon of origin of the deep digital flexor is attached to the distal end of the femur.

Q16. The portion of the mandible that articulates with the temporal bone is the..

a. retroarticular process

b. coronoid process

c. angle

d. condylar process

e. zygomatic process

Q1 7. From a lateral approach, separation of which 2 muscles from each other would expose the lateral surface of the femoral bone?

a. triceps surae and semitendinosus

b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris

c. biceps femoris and vastus lateralis

d. vastus lateralis and sartorius

e. semimembranosus and adductor

Q18. When removing the entire distal phalanx of each digit during declaring of cats, you sever the tendons of insertion of the :

a. gastrocnemius and deep digital flexor muscles

b. superficial and deep digital flexor muscles

c. cranial tibial and long digital extensor muscles

d. deep digital flexor and long digital extensor muscles

e. superficial digital flexor and long digital extensor muscles

Q19. Which condition would most likely result in ",sinking' of the right carpal pad toward the floor surface when the limb supports weight?

a. detached lateral epicondyle of the humerus

b. torn common digital extensor tendons

c. stretched biceps brachii tendon

d. separated transverse humeral ligament

e. fractured accessory carpal bone

Q20. Which muscle of dogs does not normally have a sesamoid bone associated with its tendon?

a. popliteus

b. long abductor of the first digit

c. superficial digital flexor

d . cranial tibial

e. gastrocnemius

Q21. A needle passed into the shoulder joint from a lateral approach would most likely pass through the..

a. subscapularis muscle

b. lateral head of the triceps brachii muscle

c. deltoideus muscle

d. omotransversarius muscle

e. brachialis muscle


Q22. Concerning the anatomic structure and function of the limbs, which statement is least accurate?

a. The deep digital flexor in the pelvic limb is also an extensor of the tarsus.

b. The superficial digital flexor in the thoracic limb is also a flexor of the carpus.

c. The long digital extensor also provides some stability to the stifle joint.

d. The triceps brachii also flexes the shoulder joint.

e. The gastrocnemius also flexes the digits.

Q23. The tendon of the infraspinatus muscle may be best revealed by detaching and retracting the tendon of insertion of which muscle?

a. supraspinatus

b. subscapularis

c. teres minor

d. triceps brachii

e. deltoideus

Q24. To most completely reveal the dorsal aspect the hip joint, which muscle must be detached and its tendon of insertion retracted?

a. tensor fasciae latae

b. internal obturator

c. external obturator

d. biceps femoris

e. deep gluteal

Q25. If the common calcanean tendon of an animal is tom (separated), the animal loses most of i ability to:

a. extend the stifle

b. extend the hip

c. extend the hock

d. flex the hock

e. flex the digits

Q26. Removing the anconeus muscle would most expose the:

a. tendon of the biceps; brachii muscle

b. medial collateral ligament of the elbow

c. lateral collateral ligament of the elbow

d. caudolateral aspect of the elbow

e. supinator muscle

Q27. Movement of the proximal portion of the tibia caudally, relative to the femur, is an indication of a torn:

a. long digital extensor

b. popliteus

c. cranial cruciate ligament

d. caudal cruciate ligament

e. collateral ligament

Q28. If the distal physis of the ulna is destroyed in a 6-month-old dog,:

a. the antebrachium of the limb would cease to lengthen

b. the distal end of the limb (manus) would deviate medially

c. the distal end of the limb (manus) would deviate laterally

d. the limb would continue to lengthen at the same rate as the unaffected limb

e. lengthening of the antebrachium would be unaffected, as the limb is mature by this age

Q29. In the midcervical region, lateral reflection of the left sternohyoideus muscle would most reveal the adjacent but deeper..

a. trachea

b. esophagus

c. left common carotid artery

d. left sternocephaiicus muscle

e. left stenothyroideus muscle

Q30. Double dewclaws are a desirable trait in which dog breed?

a. German Shepherd

b. Boston Terrier

C. Collie-

d. Briard

e. Golden Retriever

Q31. The ligamentum nuchae..

a. assists in extension of the cervical vertebrae

b. is present in cats

c. attaches to the nuchal crest of the skull in dogs

d. arises, in dogs and cats, from the last 5 cervical and first thoracic vertebrae

e. is in contact, in dogs and cats, with all cervical vertebrae

Q32. Which bone orportion of bone in the thoracic limb is least stressed by the weight of the animal during the support phase of locomotion?

a. ulna

b. lateral humeral epicondyle

c. radius

d. radial carpal bone

e. humeral diaphysis

Q33. An intervertebral disk is least likely to rupture.,

a. dorsally

b. between vertebrae in the 11th thoracic to 4th lumbar area

c. where it contacts an intercapital ligament

d. into the vertebral canal

e. at vertebral levels with adjacent longus colli muscles

Q34. Section through the vertebral arch and removal of the lamina of the most cranial lumbar vertebra requires detachment and retraction of the..

a. multifidus

b. iliocostalis

c. longissimus

d. rhomboideus

e. serratus dorsalis

Q35. Which structure does not cross the stifle articulation from the femur to the crus?

a. tendon of the long digital extensor

b. cranial cruciate ligament

c. caudal cruciate ligament

d. lateral collateral ligament

e. meniscofemoral ligament

Q36. Which joint has the least developed collateral ligaments?

a. shoulder

b. elbow

c. antebrachiocarpal joint

d. stifle

e . proximal interphalangeal joint

Q37. Tearing and separation of the tendon of insertion of which muscle would most impair an animal's ability to stand on the affected limb?

a. biceps brachii

b. common digital extensor

c. deep digital flexor

d. gastrocnemius

e. quadriceps femoris

Q38. The patella normally is:

a. within the tendon of the gastrocnemius muscle

b. within the tendon of the cranial tibial muscle

c. attached to the medial meniscus

d. attached to the lateral meniscus

e. positioned proximal to the femorotibial joint space

Q39. A standing dog that lifts its left foreleg to lick the metacarpal pad would least likely have near-maximal contraction of its:

a. right triceps brachii

b. left pronator teres

c. left deep digital flexor

d. left biceps brachii

e. left suppinator

Q40. Reflection of the tensor fasciae latae and sartorius cranially, middle and deep gluteus dorsally, and vastu8 lateralis distocaudally would reveal the.

a. long adductor muscle

b. cranial surface of the hip joint capsule

c. pectineus muscle

d. femoral triangle

e. internal obturator

Q41. A deep laceration directed dorsoventrally across the zygomatic and masseteric regions of the head would most likely damage the.,

a. nasolacrimal duct

b. parotid Livery duct

c. mandibular salivary duct

d. monostomatic sublingual salivary duct

e. zygomatic salivary duct

Q42. The duodenocolic fold connects mesentery of which structures?

a. ascending duodenum and ascending colon

b. ascending duodenum and descending colon

c. descending duodenum and ascending colon

d. descending duodenum and descending colon

e. caudal duodenal flexure and transverse colon

Q43. An incision through the skin and superficial fascia over the ventral portion of the 11 th intercostal space would first reveal which subcutaneous skeletal muscle?

a. thoracic diaphragm

b. latissimus dorsi

c. quadratus lumborum

d. external abdominal oblique

e. external intercostal

Q44. Which structures are not normally adjacent to each other?

a. caudate process of the caudate liver lobe and right kidney

b. papillary process of the caudate liver lobe and lesser curvature of the stomach

c. prostate gland and urethra

d. left lobe of the pancreas and caudal duodenal flexure

e. caudal margin of the greater omentum and dorsal surface of the urinary bladder


Q45. Which structure is normally located in the right half of a dogs body?

a. descending duodenum

b. descending colon

c. spleen

d. gastric fundus

e mid-cervical portion of the esophagus

Q46. In a normal dog or cat, an incision through the ventral abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity, between the umbilicus and urinary bladder, would first reveal the..

a. jejunum

b. descending colon

c. ureter

d. greater omentum

e. transverse colon

Q47. If you make a 4-centimeter craniocaudal incision in the linea alba of the abdomen, you will cut parallel to and between the fiber8 of the right and left..

a. rectus abdominis

b. internal abdominal oblique

c. external abdominal oblique

d. transversus abdominis

e. transverses thoracis

Q48. The pelvic diaphragm is composed of fascia and the..

a. constrictor vulvae and vestibuli

b. levator ani and coccygeus

c. internal and external obturators

d. rectococcygeus and retractor penis

e. internal and external anal sphincters

Q49. In dogs, which tooth has the most root,,?

a. 4th upper premolar

b. 2nd. upper premolar

c. canine

d. 2nd lower premolar

e. lst lower premomar

Q50. Which muscle would most require reflection or incision to provide surgical access to the anal sacs ?

a. rectococcygeus

b. coccygeus

c. levator ani

d. external anal sphincter

e. superficial gluteus

Q51. Paralysis of which muscle would most interfere with opening of the mouth?

a. lateral pterygoid

b. medial pterygoid

c. digastricus

d. masseter

e. temporalis

Q52. A segment of bowel with blood vessels coursing along both its me8enteric and antimesenteric borders is the..

a. ascending duodenum

b. terminal portion of the ileum

c. transverse colon

d. descending colon

e. rectum

Q53. Anal sacs..

a. do not occur in cats

b. occupy the space between coccygeus and levator ani muscles

c. empty their secretions into the rectum

d. are situated between the external and internal anal sphincters

e. are encased in fat and fascia of the ischiorectal fossae

Q54. As the stomach distends and changes position in the abdominal cavity, the organ that consequently moves caudally due to a common me8enteric attachment with the stomach is the..

a. duodenum

b. right kidney

c. right lobe of the pancreas

d. liver

e. spleen

Q55. When inserted through the omental (epiploic) foramen, one's finger lies between the..

a. portal vein and bile duct

b. portal vein and caudal vena cava

c. caudal vena cava and abdominal aorta

d. bile duct and pancreatic duct

e. hepatic artery and bile duct

Q56. An abnormal mass within the base of the lingual frenulum would most likely interfere with discharge of secretions from the..

a. mandibular salivary gland

b. zygomatic salivary gland

c. parotid salivary gland

d. vomeronasal gland

e. lacrimal gland

Q57. A dog swallows a sharp bone. If the bone subsequently penetrates the parietal portion of the stomach, it would also most likely..

a. enter the omental bursa

b. puncture the gallbladder

c. pierce the left ventricle of the heart

d. pierce the liver

e. tear through the greater omentum

Q58. A visceral serous membrane is not present on the surface of the..

a. right accessory lobe of the lung

b. liver

c. stomach

d. spleen

e. cervical esophagus

Q59. The fourth upper premolar (.shearing tooth or carnassial tooth) in dogs has how many roots?

a. the number varies with the individual dog

b. 2 lateral and 2 medial

c. 2 lateral and 1 medial

d. 1 medial and 2 lateral

e. 1 medial and 1 lateral

Q60. If a hernia of the thoracic diaphragm develops so slowly that no serous membranes rupture while the gastric fundus moves into the thoracic cavity, how many layers of serous membrane would be present between the pleural cavity and the smooth muscle of the stomach?

a. 5

b. 4

c. 3

d. 2

e. 1

Q61. Which segment of gut has the longest ,supportive attachment, from the abdominal wall to the gut segment?

a. descending duodenum

b. jejunum

c. esophagus

d. descending colon

e. transverse colon

Q62. In a dog that has not eaten recently, which structure is situated caudal to the root of the mesentery?

a. cecum

b. transverse colon

c. body of the pancreas

d. spleen

e. right kidney

Q63. The tracheal carina is positioned.

a. dorsal to the esophagus

b. between the base of the heart and the esophagus

c. caudal to the base of the heart

d. to the left of the pulmonary trunk

e. to the left of the ascending aorta

Q64. The middle ear cavity normally drains into the..

a. frontal sinus

b. external auditory meatus

c. nasopharynx

d. laryngopharynx

e. nasal cavity

Q65. Not including the tiny interarytenoid ,Cartilage, the larynx of dogs and cats consists of'

a. 2 paired and 3 unpaired cartilages

b. 1 paired and 2 unpaired cartilages

c. 3 unpaired cartilages

d. 1 paired and 3 unpaired cartilages

e. 4 unpaired cartilages

Q66. Which bone forms the ventral portion of the nasal septum and part of the dorsal wall of the nasopharynx?

a. sphenoid

b. maxillary

c. palatine

d. pterygoid

e. vomer

Q67. When the lungs are fully inflated, their caudolateral margins extend caudally to about the transverse level of the..

a. 6th thoracic vertebra

b. 8th thoracic vertebra

c. 10th thoracic vertebra

d. 12th thoracic vertebra

e. 2nd lumbar vertebra

Q68. The accessory lobe of the right lung is curled around the..

a. esophagus

b. aorta

c. caudal vena cava

d. trachea

e. right azygos vein

Q69. The cricoarytenoideus dorsalis functions in..

a. constricting the pharynx

b. constricting the esophagus

c. tightening the cricothyroid ligament

d. closing the rima glottidis

e. opening the rima glottidis

Q70. A tear or rip in a dog's thoracic diaphragm, between the diaphragmatic openings of the esophagus and caudal vena cava, would most like permit..

a. lung tissue to collapseb. lung tissue to enter the abdominal cavity
c. abdominal viscera to enter the pericardial cavity
d. liver lobes to enter the right pleural cavity
e. liver lobes to enter the left pleural cavity

Q71. Passing a naeogastric tube through the nasal cavity is difficult in carnivores because the..

a. epiglottis occludes the nasopharyngeal lumen

b. vomer divides the nasopharyngeal meatus into 2 channels

c. ethmoid conchae project into the ventral nasal meatus

d. dorsal conchae end caudally in a cul de sac

e. ventral conchae are highly branched

Q72. A dog is brought to your clinic with a puncture wound in the left thoracic wall, and you diagnose a collapsed lung. What is the least number of serous membranes (layers) that could have been punctured,?

a. none

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. 4

Q73. In a resting dog that is not panting or ,,wallowing, the apex or tip of the epiglottis is normally positioned in the..

a. laryngopharynx

b. oropharynx

c. intrapharyngeal ostium

d. piriform recess

e. laryngeal vestibule

Q74. Which cartilage of the larynx is most responsible for preventing collapse or constriction of the laryngeal airway?

a. cricoid

b. arytenoid

c. thyroid

d. epiglottis

e. interarytenoid

Q75. Fracture of the right 5th rib, with severe damage to lung tissue directly deep to the rib, would most likely result in:

a. puncture and collapse of only the right cranial lobe

b. puncture and collapse of only the right middle lobe

c. puncture of the right middle lobe and collapse of the right lung

d. puncture and collapse of only the right caudal lobe

e. puncture of the right caudal lobe and collapse of the right lung

Q76. The urinary bladder is supported by.,

a. 1 ligament or mesentery

b. 2 ligaments or mesenteries

c. 3 ligaments or mesenteries

d. 4 ligaments or mesenteries

e. 5 ligaments or mesenteries

Q77. The ureters open into the urinary bladder through its:

a. apex

b. dorsocranial surface

c. dorsocaudal surgace

d. ventrocranial surface

e. ventrocaudal surface

Q78. Which structure project,, into the renal pelvis?

a. renal cortex

b. renal papilla

c. renal sinus

d. renal calyx

e. urachus

Q79. The portion of the ureter that receives urine from the renal crest is the.

a. renal hilus

b. renal pelvis

c. renal sinus

d. renal trigone

e. renal papilla

Q80. Concerning the urethra of dogs and cats, which statement is most accurate?

a. The preprostatic portion of the feline urethra is relatively longer than that of the dog.

b. The urethralis muscle is composed of smooth (nonstriated) muscle.

c. The urethralis muscle is not present in cats.

d. The pelvic portion of the male urethra is contained within connective tissue caudal to the most caudal extent of the peritoneal cavity.

e. The ductus deferens enters the postprostatic portion of the male urethra.

Q81. In male dogs, the erectile tissue at the proximal end of the glans penis that is an integral part of the " tie 'during copulation is the..

a. bulbus glandis

b. penile frenulum

c. corpus spongiosum penis

d. corpus cavernosum penis

e. ischiocavernosus

Q82. The portion of the penis that is in direct contact with and surrounds the urethra is the.,

a. os penis

b. bulbus glandis

c. corpus cavernosum pets

d. corpus spongiosum penis

e. pars longa glandis

Q83. In female dogs, the vaginal fomix is..

a. located cranioventral to the external uterine ostium

b. located caudodorsal to the external uterine ostium

c. the most caudal portion of the vagina

d. a reflection of the vaginal wall away from the urethral tubercle

e. divided into 2 compartments by a median septum

Q84. The fossa clitoridis:

a. is cranial to the urethral tubercle

b. is in the dorsal wall of the vagina

c. is outside (external to) the rima pudendi

d. contains the external urethral opening

e. is in the caudoventral portion of the vaginal wall

Q85. Concerning the genital anatomy of male dogs and cats, which statement is least accurate?
a. Within the scrotum, the ductus deferens is medial to the epididymis.

b. The ductus deferens arises from the epididymis at the cranial margin of the testis.

c. The cremaster muscle is external to the parietal vaginal tunic.

d. The spermatic cord is synonymous with the visceral layer of the vaginal tunic and its contents.

e. During development, the testis descends into the scrotum through the inguinal canal while remaining outside the vaginal canal.

Q86. The round ligament of the uterus:

a. is a remnant of the umbilical artery

b. is a remnant of the umbilical vein

c. spans the distance from the uterine horn to the inguinal canal

d. attaches the ovary to the uterus

e. contains the uterine branch of the ovarian artery

Q87. The vagina is positioned..

a. directly dorsal to the rectum

b. directly ventral to the urethra

c. within the pubovesicular excavation

d. within the rectogenital excavation

e. ventral to the perineal body

Q88. Over most of the penile body, the dorsal artery and nerve of the penis are in contact with the..

a. bulbospongiosus

b. ischiocavernosus

c. corpus cavernosum

d. corpus spongiosum

e. retractor penis

Q89. Which structure curves or loops around the caudal portion of the ureter?

a. round ligament of the uterus

b. suspensory ligament of the ovary

c. median ligament of the bladder

d. ductus deferens

e. testicular artery

Q90. From dorsal to ventral, pelvic structures are arranged in the order of.

a. vagina, rectum, urethra

b. vagina, urethra, rectum

c. rectum, urethra, vagina

d. rectum, vagina, urethra

e. urethra, rectum, vagina

Q91. The ovarian bursa..

a. is a membranous sac totally separating the ovary from the peritoneal cavity

b. is composed of membranes within which most of the uterine tube is located

c. contains the round ligament of the uterus

d. contains the suspensory ligament of the ovary

e. is not present in cats

Q92. A loop of intestine passes through (within) the vaginal canal, reaching the level of the testis and without tearing of any serosal layer. What is the minimum number of serous layers between the smooth muscle of the intestinal wall and the lumen of the ductus deferens?

a. none

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. 4

Q93. Which of the following is a direct indication

of long-standing pulmonary hypertension (constricted pulmonary vessels)?

a. enlarged right atrium

b. enlarged left atrium

c. dilated aortic bulb

d. tracheal collapse

e. left ventricular hypertrophy

Q94. Which vessel carries the least amount of blood to an organ, such as the heart, lungs, gut, liver, pancreas, urinary bladder or uterus?

a. internal thoracic artery

b. celiae artery

c. cranial mesenteric artery

d. caudal mesenteric artery

e. portal vein

Q95. If absorbed into the venous system, a substance injected into the peritoneal cavity would most likely be carried through the..

a. omental veins to the external pudendal vien

b. deep epigastric veins to the portal vein

c. omental veins to the phrenicoabdominal veins

d. cranial deep epigastric veins to the caudal vena cava

e. cranial mesenteric veins to the portal vein

Q96. If you make a ventral midline incision through the shin and sternum into the thoracic cavity, you would be cutting between and parallel to which vessels?

a. internal thoracic

b. lateral thoracic

c. external thoracic

d. mediastinal

e. phrenic

Q97. Sharp bony fragments in a fractured temporomandibular joint would most likely damage the adjacent..

a. internal carotid artery

b. lingual artery

c. external ophthalmic artery

d. caudal, auricular artery

e. maxillary artery

Q.98. In adult animals, remnants of the arterial blood supply to the fetal placenta supply blood to the..

a. liver

b. duodenum

c. jejunoileum

d. linea alba

e. urinary bladder

Q99. Incomplete occlusion of the cephalic vein during venipucture allows venous blood to continue flowing from the cranial surface of the antebrachium toward the heart, through the.

a. axillobrachial vein

b. omobrachial vein

c. median vein

d. median cubital vein

e. accessory cephalic vein

Q.100. Concerning the vascular system in dogs and cats, which statement is least accurate?

a. Two left renal arteries often supply the left kidney.

b. The cranial margin of the left kidney in dogs is caudal to that of the right kidney.

c. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.

d. The right renal vein drains into the portal vein.

e. The origin of the right testicular artery from the dorsal aorta is cranial to that of the left testicular artery.