. Q1.Transitional epithelium is a characteristic feature of the..

a. upper respiratory "stem b. urinary bladder c. seminiferous tubules

d. gallbladder e. oviduct

ANSWER

Q2. There are 3 basic methods of cell secretion. Which type of secretion is not

characterized by the cell cytoplasm itself contributing to the secretory product?

a. holocrine b. apocrine c. merocrine d. anacrine e. endocrine

ANSWER

Q3. Collagen can be produced by all of the following except.

a. osteoblasts b. fibroblast c. smooth muscle cells

d. chondroblasts e. squamous epithelial cells

ANSWER

Q4. Elastin makes up a significant proportion of the..

a. cornea b. nuchal ligament c. myocardium

d. footpad of dogs e. pinna

ANSWER

Q5. Which tissue is normally vascular?

a. cornea b. lens c. hyaline cartilage d. elastic cartilage e. bone

ANSWER

Q6. From most immature to most mature, what is the correct order of development in

osteoid-forming cells?

a. osteoprogenitor cell, osteoblast, osteocyte

b. osteocyte, osteoblast, osteoprogenitor cell

c. osteoprogenitor cell, osteocyte, osteoblast

d. osteoblast, osteoprogenitor cell, osteocyte

e. osteoblast, 'osteocyte, osteoprogenitor cell

ANSWER

Q7. In red blood cells, a Howell-Jolly body is:

a. a remnant of rough endoplasmic reticulum b. a nuclear remnant

c. a form of hemoglobin that has been oxidized d. a phagocytized parasite

e. an accumulation of excessive cell membrane

ANSWER

Q8. In which species are red blood cells normally of oval shape?

a. cattle b. horses c. camels d. pigs e. goats

ANSWER

Q9. In mammals, which stage of red blood cell development is the most mature cell

containing a nucleus?

a. rubricyte b. metarubricyte c. reticulocyte

d. rubriblast e. prorubricyte

ANSWER

Q10. Concerning cardiac and skeletal muscle, which statement is most accurate?

a. Cardiac muscle fibers are not striated, whereas skeletal muscle fibers are striated.

b. Cardiac myofiber nuclei are peripherally oriented, whereas skeletal myofiber

nuclei are centrally oriented.

c. Skeletal muscle myofibers exhibit more prominent branching than cardiac muscle myofibers.

d. Cardiac muscle contains structures known as intercalated disks.

e. Skeletal muscle contains structures known as intercalated disks.

ANSWER

Q11. Concerning veins and arteries, which statement is most accurate?

a. Luminal diameter is greater than mural (wall) thickness in veins, whereas luminal diameter is smaller than mural (wall) thickness in arteries.

b. Venules, but not arterioles, contain an internal elastic membrane.

c. Because of the increased amount of smooth muscle in veins, as compared with

that in arteries, veins are more frequently contracted and contain less blood.

d. Elastic fibers are more numerous in large veins than in large arteries.

e. Valves may be seen in medium-sized arteries, but never in medium-sized veins.

ANSWER

Q12. The period of the hair growth cycle in which the hair grows is known as:

a. telogen b. catagen c. anagen d. halogen e. neogen

ANSWER

Q13. In dogs, which structure contains cells referred to as hepatoid or hepatocyte-like?

a. circumanal glands b. anal glands c. ceruminous glands

d. vomeronasal organ e. sebaceous glands surrounding the oral cavity

ANSWER

Q14. Corpora amylacea may be found in the..

a. ceruminous glands b. mammary glands c. sebaceous glands

d. circumanal glands e. pineal gland

ANSWER

Q15. Concerning the equine hoof, which statement is most accurate?

a. Epidermal laminae are classified as insensitive, whereas dermal laminae are

classified as sensitive and the primary epidermal laminae are keratinized.

b. Epidermal laminae are classified as insensitive, whereas dermal laminae are

classified as sensitive and the secondary epidermal laminae are keratinized.

c. Dermal laminae are classified as insensitive, whereas epidermal laminae are

classified as sensitive and the primary dermal laminae are keratinized.

d. Dermal laminae are classified as insensitive, whereas epidermal laminae are

classified as sensitive and the secondary dermal laminae are keratinized.

e. Merocrine sweat glands are present in the digital cushion.

ANSWER

Q16. Enamel is formed by..

a. odontoblasts b. ameloblasts c. periodontal membrane lining cells

d. enamoblasts e. alveoloblasts

ANSWER

Q17. Concerning gastric cell function, which statement is most accurate?

a. Hydrochlonc acid is secreted by parietal cells.

b. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by chief cells.

c. Argentaffin cells secrete their products directly into the gastric lumen.

d. Argentaffin cells are present in the nonglandular mucosa.

e. Chief cells wrote mucus to help protect the mucosa from erosion.

ANSWER

Q18. Concerning the mesangial cells of the glomerulus, which statement is most accurate?

a. They are of ectodermal origin.

b. They most likely have a phagoeytic and supportive function.

c. They most likely form a portion of the

glomerular filtration barrier.

d. They are of endodermal origin.

e. They are not present in avian kidneys.

ANSWER

Q19. In the mammalian lung, the airways of smallest diameter in which cilia

are absent are the..

a. primary bronchioles b. tertiary bronchioles c. secondary bronchioles

d. alveolar ducts e. alveolar saccules

ANSWER

Q20. Concerning type-I (membranous) and type-II (granular) pneumocytes, which

statement is most accurate?

a. Type-I pneumocytes are squamous, whereas type-11 pneumocytes are cuboidal

or round.

b. Type-H pneumocytes are the primary cell lining of the alveoli in the normal adult lung.

c. Type-I pneumocytes produce surfactant and other products.

d. Type-I pneumocytes are cuboidal or round, whereas type-H

pneumocytes are squamous.

e. Type-I and -][I pneumocytes cannot be differentiated with a light microscope.

ANSWER

Q21. Concerning the air sacs of birds, which statement is most accurate?

a. In addition to facilitating movement of air through the lung, they

function in exchange of gases.

b. Most birds have only one air sac.

c. Air sac diverticula are present in bones.

d. There is really no functional difference between the air sac and the lung.

e. Air sacs are limited to the thoracic region.

ANSWER

Q22. Concerning the adrenal cortex, which statement is most accurate?

a. The zona glomerulosa produces glucocorticoids, the zona fasciculata produces

sex hormones, and the zona reticularis produces mineralocorticoids.

b. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, the zona fasciculata

Produces glueocorticoide, and the zona reticularis produces sex hormones.

c. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, the zona fasciculata produces

sex hormones, and the zona reticularis produces glucocorticoids.

d. The zona glomerulosa produces glucocorticoids, the zona fasciculata produces mineralocorticoids, and the zona reticularis produces sex hormones.

e. The zona glomerulosa produces sex hormones, the zona fasciculata produces mineralocorticoids, and the zona reticularis produces glucocorticoids.

ANSWER

Q23. Sertoli cells function in all of the following ways except..

a. provide support and probably nutrition to developing gametes

b. secrete estrogens

c. facilitate release of gametes

d. phagocytize damaged gametes

e. secrete testosterone

ANSWER

Q24. What is the correct order of Spermatogenesis?

a. A spermatogonium, B spermatogonium 1 (intermediate) spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte secondary spermatocyte, spermatid

b. A spermatogonium, I (intermediate) spermatogonium, B spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid

c. A spermatogonium, I (intermediate) spermatogonium, B Spermatogonium, spermatid, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte

d. B spermatogonium, I (intermediate) spermatogonium, A spermatogonium, spermatid, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte

e. B spermatogonium, A spermatogonium, I (intermediate) spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid

ANSWER

Q25. During spermatogenesis, which cell is the first to become haploid?

a. spermatid b. primary spermatocyte c. secondary spermatocyte

d. B spermatogonium e. A spermatogonium

ANSWER

Q26. Concerning the normal uterus, which statement is most accurate?

a. The caruncle is a region of the lamina propria-submucosa that is highly

vascularized and contains many glands.

b. The cotyledon is a region of the lamina propria-submucosa that is highly

vascularized and contains many glands.

c. Changes that occur during the estrous cycle include glandular activity,

vascularization and leukocyte infiltration.

d. Changes that occur during the estrous cycle include epithelial keratinization

and leukocyte infiltration.

e. The cotyledon is a region of the lamina propria-submucosa that is highly vascularized but nonglandular.

ANSWER

Q27. Diffuse placentation is present in:

a. horse and pigs b. horses and cattle c. dogs and cats

d. dogi3 and ferrets e. horses and dogs

ANSWER

Q28. Concerning the trophoblast, which statement is beast accurate?

a. Trophoblast cells form the outer layer of the blastoeyst.

b. During nidation in mares (early attachment to the uterus), trophoblasts

invade the uterine mucosa, providing a point of attachment.

c. Trophoblasts are involved in formation of endometrial cups.

d. Trophoblasts transport oxygen to the newly fertilized ovum.

e. Trophoblasts arise from the chorioallantoic placenta.

ANSWER

Q29. Concerning reproduction in birds, which statement is last accurate?

a. Only one functional ovary and oviduct are retained in adults.

b. A corpus luteum does not form after ovulation.

c. Both infundibular glands and sperm host glands may store spermatozoa.

d. The vagina is also known as the "shell gland."

e. The uterus is responsible for formation of the egg shell.

ANSWER

Q30. Concerning the normal cornea, which statement is least accurate?

a. The rostral epithelium consists of cornified stratified squamous epithelium.

b. It contains numerous nerve endings.

c. It is avascular, and diffusion of nutrients is the mechanism for nutritive supply.

d. In major domestic species, the equine cornea is the most sensitive to injury.

e. Edema results in separation of tissue within the substantia propria.

ANSWER

Q31. Which layer is especially well developed in the footpad of dogs?

a. stratum granulosum b. stratum basale c. stratum lucidum

d. stratum spinosum e. stratum germinativum

ANSWER

Q32. The uveal tract consists of the.

a. choroid, ciliary body and retina

b. choroid, iris and retina

c. choroid, ciliary body and iris

d. choroid, ciliary body and lens

e. retina, choroid and lens

ANSWER

Q33. Which species does not have a tapetum lucidum?

a. horses b. dogs c. cats d. cattle e. pigs

ANSWER

Q34. Another name for interstitial cells of the Testis is:

a. seminiferous cells b. Sertoli cells c. accessory cells

d. Leydig cells e. supporting cells

ANSWER

Q35. The predominant type of connective tissue in tendons and ligaments is:

a. areolar connective tissue

b. irregular dense white fibrous connective tissue

c. regular dense white fibrous connective tissue

d. elastic connective tissue

e. fibrocartilage

ANSWER

Q36. Concerning brown adipose tissue, which statement is least accurate?

a. It contains numerous mitochondria.

b. It is histologically distinct from white adipose tissue.

c. It is less well supplied with blood vessels and nerves than is white adipose tissue.

d. Thermoregulation is an important feature.

e. In most species, it is more abundant in neonates than in mature animals.

ANSWER

Q37. The multinucleated giant cell responsible for remodeling of osteoid is the..

a. osteocyte b. osteoblast c osteoclast

d. chondroclast e . foreign-body giant cell

ANSWER

Q38. Abnormal transformation of a specific, adult, fully differentiated tissue into

another differentiated type is called..

a. dysplasia b. anaplasia c. hyperplasia d. metaplasia e. neoplasia

ANSWER

Q39. Woven bone is also known as..

a. lamellar bone b. fibrous bone c. chondrous bone d. mature bone e. osseous bone

ANSWER

Q40. Osteoclasts are derived from:

a. macrophages b. osteocytes c. osteoblasts d. osteoprogenitor cells

e. chondroclasts

ANSWER

Q41. Heinz bodies, also known as erythrocyte refractile bodies, consist of.

a. nuclear fragments b. mitochondrial remnants c. oxidized hemoglobin

d. phagocytized pigments e. accumulations of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

ANSWER

Q42. Poikilocytes include all of the following forms of red blood cells except..

a. acanthocytes b. leptocytes c. schistocytes

d. stomatocytes e. globulocytes

ANSWER

Q43. Rouleaux formation (stacking of red blood cells) is most commonly

encountered in normal..

a. dogs b. cats c. cattle d. horse e. goats

ANSWER

Q44. The first site of hematopoiesis during embryonic development is the..

a. yolk sac b. liver c. spleen d. thymus e. bone marrow

ANSWER

Q45. Concerning muscle fibers, which statement is most accurate?

a. Red muscle fibers consist primarily of type-I fibers, which contain abundant mitochondria and myoglobin.

b. White muscle fibers consist primarily of type-I fibers, which contain minimal myoglobin and mitochondria.

c. Type-I fibers are also known as fast-twitch fibers.

d. Type-H fibers are also known as slow-twitch fibers.

e. There is no difference in myofiber type in the breast muscle of a duck as

compared with the breast muscle of a chicken.

ANSWER

Q46. In which vessels are valves present?

a. vena cava and lymph vessels

b. small and medium-sized veins and lymph vessels

c. small and medium-sized arteries and lymph vessels

d. small and medium-sized arteries

e. vena cava and small veins

ANSWER

Q47. What species has lymph nodes in which lymphatic nodules are located in the

central or medullary regions, and structures described as 'medullary cords'

are located in the peripheral or cortical region?

a. pigs b. horses c. cattle d. dogs e. cats

ANSWER

Q48. Hemal nodes are found in:

a. dogs and cats b. ruminants c. horses and cattle

d. horses and sheep e. dogs and horses

ANSWER

Q49. Hassall's corpuscles may be found in the..

a. spleen b. thymus c. thyroid d. retropharyngeal lymph node e. mammary gland

ANSWER

Q50. Abundant adipose tissue is found in the..

a. scrotum and eyelid

b. frog of horse and pinna of dogs

c. digital cushion of horses and footpad of dogs

d. point of attachment of the dew claw

e. pharyngeal mucosa

ANSWER

Q51. Integumentary melanin pigment is most abundant in the..

a. stratum basale and stratum spinosum

b. stratum lucidum and stratum folliculosum

c. stratum granulosum and stratum superficialis

d. stratum corneum and stratum dermosum

e. stratum disjuncture and stratum epidermosum

ANSWER

Q52. Keratohyaline granules are present in the..

a. stratum basale b. stratum lucidum c. stratum granulosum

d. stratum corneum e. stratum disjuncture

ANSWER

Q53. When mineralized, predentin becomes dentin. Predentin is secreted by..

a. ameloblasts b. osteoblasts and osteocytes c. odontoblasts

d. fibroblasts and fibrocytes e. amelocytes

ANSWER

Q54. Which cells of the gastric mucosa secrete materials into the lamina propria

(subsequently taken up by vasculature) rather than into the gastric lumen?

a. parietal cells b. zymogen cells c. argentaffin (enterochromaffin) cells

d. mucous neck cells e. chief cells

ANSWER

Q55. Zymogen cells of the gastric mucosa are also known as.

a. transitional cells b. oxyntic cells c. extrinsic cells

d. chief cells e. parietal cells

ANSWER

Q56. Paneth cells are present in the..

a. small intestine of ruminants and horse

b. stomach of dogs

c. pancreas of most domestic species

d. large intestine of cats

e. small intestine of cats

ANSWER

Q57. Brunner's glands are found in the..

a. duodenal mucosa b. ileal mucosa c. duodenal submucosa

d. ileal submucosa e. duodenal muscularis

ANSWER

Q58. Concerning juxtaglomerular cells, which statement is most accurate?

a. They are modified smooth muscle cells of the glomerular afferent arteriole and they

secrete renin.

b. They are modified smooth muscle cells of the glomerular afferent arteriole and they secrete anglotensin.

c. They are modified smooth muscle cells of the glomerular afferent arteriole and they secrete aldosterone.

d. They are modified epithelial cells of the proximal convoluted tubule and they secrete

renin.

e. They are modified epithelial cells of the proximal convoluted tubule and they

secrete angiotensin.

ANSWER

Q59. Cartilaginous ring/plaques are associated with the.

a. primary bronchi b. alveolar saccules c. secondary bronchioles

d. primary bronchioles e. tertiary bronchioles

ANSWER

Q60. Which species has the most well-developed bronchioles?

a. cattle b. pigs c. horses d. mice e. dogs

ANSWER

Q61. Concerning the lungs of birds, which statement is most accurate?

a. They are quite similar, histologically, to the lungs of mammals.

b. Relative to the size of the thoracic cavity, they are extremely small.

c. Their volume changes with the respiratory cycle.

d. They are not continuous with the air sacs.

e. They serve the same function as the air sacs.

ANSWER

Q62. Insulin is secreted by which type of pancreatic islet cells?

a. alpha cells b. beta cells c. C cells d. delta cells e. gamma cells

ANSWER

Q63. Amine precursor uptake and decarboxylue cells include all of the following except..

a. cells that secrete gastrointestinal hormones

b. C (parafollicular) cells of the thyroid

c. pancreatic islet cells

d. cells within the parathyroid gland

e. adrenal medullary cells

ANSWER

Q64. Cells that comprise the corona radiata surrounding the primary oocyte are..

a. granulosa cells of the cumulus oophorus

b. granulosa cells of the zona

c. thecal cells of the cumulus oophorus

d. thecal cells of the zona pellucida

e. trophoblasts

ANSWER

Q65. Concerning the lens in adult animals, which statement is most accurate?

a. Epithelium is present on the rostral surface only.

b. Epithelium is present on the caudal surface only.

c. Both the rostral and caudal surfaces have epithelium.

d. Neither the rostral nor the caudal surface has epithelium.

e. The epithelium is stratified squamous.

ANSWER

Q66. Concerning the retina, which statement is least accurate?

a. The fundus of birds and some mammals (chinchilla, armadillo, bat) is avascular.

b. Rods are generally distributed throughout the retina, whereas cones are the

predominant type of photoreceptor in the area centralis retinae.

c. Astrocytes, oligodendroglia and microglia may be present in the retina.

d. It forms the innermost layer of the eye.

e. It forms a portion of the uveal tract.

ANSWER

Q67. The most abundant type of collagen in cartilage is:

a. type I b. type II c. type IIII d. type IV e. type V

ANSWER

Q68. Fibroblast can be differentiated from fibrocytes by their..

a. larger, more oval nucleus b. less abundant cytoplasm

c. more eosinophilic cyptoplasm

d. less prominent nucleolus e. more spindle-shaped nucleus

ANSWER

Q69. Abundant fibrocartilage can be found in the..

a. nose b. larynx c. trachea and bronchi d. external ear

e. intervertebral disks

ANSWER

Q70. Which type of cartilage lacks a distinct perichondrium?

a. hyaline cartilage b. elastic cartilage c. fibrocartilage

d. cartilage of the appendicular skeleton e. cartilage of the flat bones of the skull

ANSWER

Q71. Intramembranous ossification occurs in bones of the..

a. calvaria b. extremities c. pelvis d. thoracic vertebrae e. lumbar vertebrae

ANSWER

Q72. As one progresses distally toward the diaphysis, the correct order of cartilage zones within the growth plate is:

a. proliferation, maturation, mineralization ossification, resting

b. proliferation, maturation, resting, mineralization and ossification

c. resting, proliferation, mineralization and ossification, maturation

d. resting, proliferation, maturation, mineralization and ossification

e. resting, maturation, proliferation, mineralization and ossification

ANSWER

Q73. Concerning red blood cells in normal goats, which statement is most accurate?

a. They are slightly larger than the red blood cells in normal don.

b. Rouleaux formation is common.

c. Anisocytosis and even poikilocytosis are common.

d. Nucleated forms are common.

e. The percentage 6f reticulated red blood cells in normal goats is 10- 15%.

ANSWER

Q74. Concerning the morphology of eosinophils, which statement is most accurate?

a. Canine eosinophilic granules stain intensely orange.

b. Feline eosinophilic granules are nearly perfectly round.

c. Porcine eosinophilic granules are rod shaped.

d. Equine eosinophilic granules are round, 1 and so numerous that they frequently obscure the nucleus.

e. Equine eosinophils are large and rod shaped, and so numerous that they frequently obscure the nucleus.

ANSWER

Q75. In which species do circulating 1_wnphocytes normally outnumber neutrophils?

a. horses b. dogs c. cats d. cattle e. ferrets

ANSWER

Q76. The external elastic lamina of an artery defines the outer limit of the.

a. intima b. media c. adventitia d. endothelium e. vasa vasorum

ANSWER

Q77. A sinusoidal spleen has abundant venous sinuses and can store large amounts of

blood for quick release if needed. Which animals do not have a sinusoidal teen?

a. horse b. dogs c. cats d. ruminants e. zebras

ANSWER

Q78. What is the major hemtatopoietic activity of the spleen in adult animals?

a. erythropoiesis b. lymphopoiesis c. granulopoiesis

d. erythropoiesis and lymphopoiesis e. lymphopoiesis and granulopoiesis

ANSWER

Q79. Which animals have the most prominent peribronchiolar mucous glands?

a. horse b. dogs c. pigs d. ruminants e. cats

ANSWER

Q80. Which species has a nonkeratinized esophageal tunica mucosa?

a. dogs b. horse c. rats d. cattle e. goats

ANSWER

Q81. Which species has submucosal glands along the entire length of the esophagus?

a. horses b. cattle c. cats d. dogs e. goats

ANSWER

Q82. Which species does not have a nonglandular portion of the stomach?

a. cattle b. horse c. pigs d. rats e. dogs

ANSWER

Q83. The mucosal lining of the omasum, reticulum and rumen consists of.

a. stratified squamous epithelium

b. stratified columnar epithelium

c. transitional epithelium

d. cuboidal epithelium

e. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

ANSWER

Q84. Which segment of bowel contains the highest proportion of goblet cells?

a. duodenum b. cecum c. colon d. rectum e. ileum

ANSWER

Q85. Fibrous connective tissue separates each hepatic lobule in:

a. pigs b. horses c. ruminants d. dogs e. cats

ANSWER

Q86. Melanophore-rich caruncular regions are present in:

a. cattle b. goats c. sheep d. horses e. dogs

ANSWER

Q87. Cytologic examination of a vaginal smear from a female dog in heat is most likely to reveal..

a. occasional red blood cells and many cornified squamous epithelial cells

b. occasional red blood cells and scattered cornified squamous epithelial cells

c. numerous red blood cells and many cornified squamous epithelial cells

d. occasional red blood cells and many noncornified squamous epithelial cells

e. numerous red blood cells and many noncornified squamous epithelial cells

ANSWER

Q88. Tarsal gland of the eyelid are classified as..

a. sebaceous glands b. sweat glands c. lymphoid tissue

d. mucous glands e. endocrine glands

ANSWER

Q89. Which species has a relatively thick pleura?

a. horses b. dogs c. cats d. rats e. pigs

ANSWER

Q90. Concerning the intestinal tract, which statement is least accurate?

a. The tunica mucosa is thicker in the colon than in the small intestine.

b. Villi are present in the colon but not in the small intestine.

c. Goblet cells are more abundant in the colon than in the small intestine.

d. Aggregates of lymphoid cells (Peyer's patches) are more common in the distal

small intestine than in the proximal small intestine.

e. In the small intestine, cell division occurs at the villus tip.

ANSWER

Q91. Which species does not have a gallbladder?

a. dogs b. horses c. ferrets d. cattle e. cats

ANSWER

Q92. On histologic examination, the thymic cortex appears darker than the medulla

because of.

a. melanin pigment in the medulla

b. lipofuscin pigment in the medulla

c. the high density of epithelial cells in the medulla

d. the high density of lymphocytes in the medulla

e. hemosiderin in the medulla

ANSWER

Q93. Myoepithelial cells are most prominent in the..

a. apocrine glands of the anal sac

b. harderian glands

c. mammary glands

d. tarsal glands

e. meibomian glands

ANSWER

Q94. Hyaluronic acid is abundant in the..

a. skin b. synovial fluid c. cornea d. cartilage e. myocardium

ANSWER

Q95. Concerning the 8pkm, which statement is least accurate?

a. The red pulp predominates over the white pulp.

b. Of domestic species, the horse has the thickest capsule.

c. Periarterial lymphatic sheaths are composed of T-lymphocytes.

d. The spleen of a ruminant can be classified as sinusoidal.

e. It is one of the possible sites of extramedullary hematopoiesis.

ANSWER

Q96. Which structure is lined with simple ,squamous epithelium?

a. blood vessels b. urinary bladder c. ventricles of the brain

d. bronchi e. gallbladder

ANSWER

Q97. Concerning epithelium, which statement is least accurate?

a. With pseudostratified epithelium, not all cells contact the basement membrane,

but all reach the surface.

b. Ciliated cuboidal epithelium is present in the ventricles of the brain

(ependymal cells) and in the terminal bronchioles of the lung.

c. Ciliated columnar epithelium is present in the tertiary bronchi, uterus and oviducts.

d. The epidermal laminae of horses are composed of squamous epithelial cells.

e. The peritoneal and pleural cavities are lined by simple squamous epithelium.

ANSWER

Q98. What does the term "argyrophilic" mean?

a. stains positively with gold impregnation techniques

b. stains positively with silver impregnation techniques

c. stains positively with argon-based stains

d. the ability of a single stain to impart a different color to different granules

e. abundant arginine in the matrix

ANSWER

Q99. Purkinje cells that are histologically distinct are found in the..

a. cerebrum and myocardium

b. cerebellum and myocardium

c. brainstem and myocardium

d. testis and ovary

e. adrenal gland and testis

ANSWER

Q100. Which tissue normally involutes with the onset of puberty?

a. thyroid b. adrenal gland c. meibomian gland d. thymus e. pineal gland

ANSWER

Q101. Herring bodies are found in the..

a. thymus b. neurohypophysis c. proximal renal tubular epithelium

d. mammary gland e. cerebrum

ANSWER

Q102. Kupffer cells are found in the..

a. spleen b. large intestinal mucosa c. gastric mucosa d. liver

e. cerebellum

ANSWER

Q103. Which cells are not found in the retina?

a. sustentacular cells b. inner plexiform cells c. rods

d. cones e. ganglion cells

ANSWER

Q104. Concerning the intestinal tract, which .statement is least accurate?

a. Villi serve to increase the surface area for absorption.

b. In the normal maturation process, epithelial cells migrate distally along the

contour of the villi.

c. Peyer's patches are found only in the ileum.

d. On sections stained with hemotoxylin and eosin, mucus within the epithelial-cell cytoplasm appears as large, round, clear vacuoles.

e. Brunner's glands are present in the duodenum.

ANSWER

Q105. Which cell has an eccentric nucleus?

a. lymphoblast b. plasma cell c. mast cell d. basophil e. fibroblast

ANSWER

Q106. Concerning megakaryocytes, which statement is least accurate?

a. They contain a relatively large volume of cytoplasm.

b. They are multinucleated.

c. Thrombocytes, or platelets, arise from megakaryocytes.

d. They are most abundant in the bone marrow.

e. They can be found in the spleen of normal animas.

ANSWER

Q107. One of the major functions of Kupffer cells is..

a. production of collagen

b. production of glucagon

c. phagocytosis

d. accumulation of excess vitamin A

e. production of C-reactive protein

ANSWER

Q108. Concerning the histologic appearance of smooth muscle, which statement is most accurate?

a. The nucleus is classically described as "cigar shaped" because of its rounded ends.

b. The nucleus has sharp, angular ends.

c. Smooth muscle cells are arranged in tight whorls.

d. Smooth muscle cells are arranged singly in a loose mucinous background.

e. Smooth muscle cells are typically observed against a collagenous background.

ANSWER

Q109. From which embryonic cell layer is the derived?

a. ectoderm

b. phthisoderm

c. mesoderm

d. ophthoderm

e. endoderm

ANSWER

Q110. Discontinuous endothelium is found in the..

a. thymus b. brain c. liver d. nasal cavity e. testis

ANSWER